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smp_86112's avatar
smp_86112
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Mar 29, 2012

Weblogic JSessionID Persistence

A customer of mine found this article, which uses JSessionID for WebLogic persistence:

 

 

sol7392: Overview of universal persistence:

 

http://support.f5.com/kb/en-us/solu...l7392.html

 

 

But I am having a difficult time understanding why Cookie persistence would not accomplish exactly the same thing? If the client can accept a JSessionID cookie, then I think it is safe to assume it can accept an LTM cookie. Assuming that's true, is there some other reason why Cookie persistence wouldn't work too?

 

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  • hooleylist's avatar
    hooleylist
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    Mar 29, 2012
    I agree with you. The only reason I can think of for using UIE persistence based off of an application cookie value is if you want to persist across virtuals/pools/services (which the cookie insert persistence profile doesn't support).

     

     

    Cookie insert persistence is simpler and more efficient for TMM versus mapping app cookie values to a server in its own memory.

     

     

    Aaron
  • smp_86112's avatar
    smp_86112
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    Mar 30, 2012
    Thanks hoolio, I just needed that sanity check to make sure I wasn't missing something obvious. It also makes sense intuitively that it is more efficient to use Cookie persistence. Thanks for the feedback.