Forum Discussion
Daniel_55334
Altostratus
Aug 27, 2008Using NAT and SNAT at the same time
Customer have setup like this. They have VS that act like reverse proxy. The backend servers for these VS are not located in their network. They have internal servers, located behind BIG-IP, that need to access these VS. SNAT pool is configured on these VS.
These internal servers also need to communicate with outside servers directly. So NAT for these internal servers are configured.
As BIG-IP will use the more specific match for address translation, so now internal servers would use the NAT ip to access the backend servers of the VS, as well as to access the outside servers directly.
Here is my question. Can they use the SNAT ip to access backend servers of VS, but the NAT ip to talk with outside servers directly?
- dennypayne
Employee
You'd have to have an iRule to handle the logic of when to use SNAT vs. NAT, and then you have to have some sort of virtual server that passes those outbound connections to apply that iRule to. - Daniel_55334
Altostratus
Thanks for the reply. - dennypayne
Employee
I think I glossed over where you said "reverse proxy" here so I was confused on what was "internal"...it's going to depend on where the request originates and to what address. If a connection is made to the VIP that happens to be configured to SNAT, that will override any forwarding behavior through a NAT, and the BIG-IP won't change the session midstream to use the NAT. So in your case, I think the answer to your original question is yes. - hoolio
Cirrostratus
I don't think there is a way to apply/disable a NAT from an iRule. However, the behavior you're seeing is expected assuming the destination IP matches a VIP with SNAT enabled:
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