For more information regarding the security incident at F5, the actions we are taking to address it, and our ongoing efforts to protect our customers, click here.

Forum Discussion

meena_60183's avatar
meena_60183
Icon for Nimbostratus rankNimbostratus
May 12, 2010

Is this possible with a single LTM?

I have 3 servers (acts like routers) with 2 interfaces each, say in1 and int2. When traffic hits int1, it gets routed through int2 to other resources on the internet or intranet based on the criteria ...
config
design
Hamish's avatar
Hamish
Icon for Cirrocumulus rankCirrocumulus
May 18, 2010
You don't need a second VS (You do mean Virtual Server when you say VIP right? Because a VS is a combination of IP and port - but the port could also be 0 == any) if I understand your configuration correctly. The only VS that is used in this scenario is the client -> service. Because the int2 interface is used by the appliances to communicate with their resources, and according to your diagram that traffic doesn't traverse the F5's at all.

 

 

Return traffic from the servers (appliance) will be matched by the F5 with the connection table entry and be routed back to the correct client (Just think of the F5 as a proxy with a bit of clever NAT'ing to fool the endpoints into thinking there's nothing there).

 

 

A VS will accept inbound traffic on any of the VLAN's configured on the F5 (By default). You can also limit the VLAN's that a VS will accept traffic on if you want to (The 'enabled on' option of a VS).

 

 

H